INDIA YEAR BOOK 2011

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Solved General Studies Paper -I of Civils Main Exam 2011

General Studies Paper – I

1. Answer any three of the following in about 250 words each:         20x3=60

(a) ‘Essentially all that is contained in part IV- A of the Constitution is just a codification of tasks integral to Indian way of life.’ Critically examine the statement.

Answer:

Article 51A of the part IV-A of the Indian Constitution lists the fundamental duties of the citizens which were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act. Fundamental duties are restrictions on the citizens, but they are not enforceable in a court of law. They act more like a lighthouse to guide citizens’ conduct and bring it in conformity with the Indian way of life. They include abiding the constitution and respecting its ideals and institutions such as the National Flag and the National Anthem. Fundamental Duties also include cherishing and following the noble ideals that inspired our freedom struggle, upholding the sovereignty and integrity of the nation, rendering national services, promoting harmony and brotherhood, renouncing practices derogatory to the dignity of women, safeguarding public property, developing scientific temper etc.

Incidents like destruction of public property by violent mobs and protestors, delivering of hate speeches to cause disharmony and rift among communities, mounting corruption, declining child sex ratio, reports of practices like sati which still is continuing in some parts of the country point towards the fact that the republic has not succeeded completely in instilling the values contained in part IV-A, in the hearts and minds of the Indian citizens.

These values should be taught from the early childhood through a free, fair, secular, and non-discriminatory education system. The society also needs role models from all walks of life such as politics, business, administration, judiciary, academia etc.  so that national identity becomes paramount and the values are most cherished.


(b) ‘The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on several principles, and discretion has to be exercised in public consideration.’ Analyse this statement in the context of judicial powers of the President of India.

Answer:

Article 72 of the Indian Constitution empowers the president to pardon, remit, commute, respite and reprieves a person of any offence. Supreme Court has held that pardoning power of the President is subject to judicial review and it should not be handled dishonestly in the public interest.

The question of executive clemency has come into focus due to the recent decision of the President’s rejecting the mercy plea of those, convicted in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case and Tamil Nadu assembly’s passage of a resolution over it. The Afzal Guru case has also not yet been resolved which also is giving political colour to the whole issue.

Supreme Court in its 1989 judgement laid down several principles or ‘do’s’ and ‘don’ts’ with respect to the executive clemency. The apex court observed that the delay in making a decision on the death penalty leads to adverse psychological impact on the convicted and it amounts to the court’s inhuman and brutal treatment. Thus inordinate delay can form the basis for clemency. It also observed that the nature of crime needs to be taken into consideration before granting executive clemency. The conduct of the convicted cannot form the basis for granting clemency and the time calculated should be from the date the final verdict was given on the case if it needs to form the ground for clemency.

Constitution should be amended to provide the time limits within which mercy petition are to be decided. Importantly, the political parties should restrain from politicising the power of the President which is supposed to be used in the public consideration.


(c) Discuss the extent, causes, and implications of ‘nutrition transition’ said to be underway in India.

Answer:
Nutrition Transition can be referred to as the increased consumption of unhealthy foods compounded with increased prevalence of overweight in middle-to-low-income countries. It has serious implications in terms of public health outcomes, risk factors, economic growth and international nutrition policy.

Extent: As developing societies like India industrialise and urbanise, and as standards of living continue to rise, weight gain and obesity are beginning to pose a growing threat to the health of the citizens. Repeated episodes of malnutrition, followed by nutritional rehabilitation, are known to alter body composition and increase the risk of obesity. Food balance data from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) show that the change in energy intake in Asian countries has been small, but there have been large changes in consumption of animal products, sugars and fats in countries like India. There is a progressive increase in the intake of protein, and probably fats. The increase in the intake of protein and fats is due to the phenomenal increase in the consumption of milk and milk products and an increase in the intake of animal products. On the other hand consumption of pulses and legumes has fallen drastically in India.

Causes: In India, the demographic and epidemiological transition, the forces of internal migration and urbanisation, the changes in food consumption patterns and low physical activity patterns to an epidemic of obesity and other NCDs (Non-communicable Diseases). There is also a  decrease in the energy expenditure in occupational activities, increased urbanisation, universal use of motor cars, mechanisation of most manual jobs outside the occupational sphere and increasing leisure time have aggravated this trend in India.

Implications: There is a large increase in the non-communicable diseases (NCDs) in the developing countries specially the countries under transition like India. Approximately 40% of the deaths in the developing countries take place due to NCDs.

(d) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and the implication of its amendment in 2003.

Answer:
Pre Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Technique Act, 1994 was enacted to arrest the declining sex ration. It is a subject of discussion now because; an all-time low child sex ratio of 914 was reported in the 2011 provisional census data.

The main purpose of enacting the act is to ban the use of sex selection techniques before or after conception and prevent the misuse of prenatal diagnostic technique for sex selective absorption.

Offences under this act include conducting or helping in the conduct of prenatal diagnostic technique in the unregistered units, sex selection on a man or woman, conducting PND test for any purpose other than the one mentioned in the act, sale, distribution, supply, renting etc. of any ultra sound machine or any other equipment capable of detecting sex of the foetus.

The act was amended in 2003 to improve the regulation of the technology used in sex selection.

Implications of PCPNDT Act, 1994 amendment:

1. Amendment of the act mainly covered bringing the technique of pre conception sex selection within the ambit of the act

2. Bringing ultrasound within its ambit

3. Empowering the central supervisory board, constitution of state level supervisory board

4. Provision for more stringent punishments

5. Empowering appropriate authorities with the power of civil court for search, seizure and sealing the machines and equipments of the violators

6. Regulating the sale of the ultrasound machines only to registered bodies

2. Answer one of the following in about 250 words:        20x1=20

(a) Trace the salient sequences of events in popular revolt that took place in February 1946 in the then Royal Indian Navy and bring out its significance in the freedom struggle. Do you agree with the views that the sailors who took part in this revolt were some of the unsung heroes of the freedom struggle?

Answer:

Royal Indian Navy revolt of February 1946 took place in the background of Quit India Movement and Second World War. This was a very turbulent phase in India’s freedom struggle. The popular revolt shook the very foundation of British Raj and made it abundantly clear that their time in India was numbered.
In November 1945 some students from Forward Block, Students Federation of India and Islamia College participated in a protest march over the INA trials. They tied together League, Congress and red flag, as a symbol of anti imperialist unity.

In February 1946, Muslim League students took a protest march in which some Congress students also participated against the seven year sentence to INA prisoner Rashid Ali.

In February 1946, naval ratings of HMIS Talwar went on strike to protest against racial discrimination, unpalatable food, INA trials, and abuse by superior officers. This was followed by city people joining in through mass strikes, hartals, meetings, attacks on police stations, railway station etc. Other parts of the country also expressed support in the form of strikes by Royal Indian Forces in Calcutta, Puna and Bombay.

The upsurge showed that the fearless action by the masses, revolt in armed forces had psychological affect on masses and it also prompted British to extend some concessions but above all it marked the end of British rule in India.

Sailors who took part in the struggle were the unsung heroes as they did not get the level of publicity as that of the INA trials and in the pages of history; they remain anonymous and unknown.

(b) Evaluate the influence of three important women’s organisations of the early twentieth century in India on country’s society and politics. To what extent do you think were the social objectives of these organisations constrained by their political objectives?

Answer:

Bharat Stree Mahamandal, All India Women’s Conference and Women’s India Association were some of the important women’s associations of the early twentieth century. Bharat Stree Mahamandal was the first women's organisation in India founded by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani in Allahabad in 1910. One of the primary goals of the organisation was to promote female education which was not well developed at that time. The organisation opened several offices in Lahore, Allahabad, Delhi, Karachi, Amritsar etc. to improve the condition of women all over India.

All India Women’s Conference was founded in 1927 by Margret cousins having Sarojni Naidu, Lady Dorab Tata as its founding members. It worked towards women’s education, abolition of purdah system, legislative reform, abolition of child marriage, harijan welfare, family planning, and rural reconstruction. These women’s organisations worked for a society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights and opportunities.  They wanted security for every human being; the essentials of life not determined by accidental births but by planned social distribution.

Their efforts led to several legislative reforms in Sharda Act (1929), Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act (1937), Factory Act (1947), Hindu Marriage and Divorce Act etc. AIWC efforts also led to setting up of The All India Women’s Education Fund
Association, and Lady Irwin College of Home Science.

Social and educational reforms effort by the women’s associations helped in preparing the Indian women to participate in the freedom struggle. With Mahatma Gandhi women availed an opportunity to get into the scene of freedom struggle.

3. Answer any one of the following in about 250 words:    20x1=20

(a) Critically examine the design of National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) scheme. Do you think it has a better chance of
success than the Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna(SGSY) in achieving its objectives?

Answer:

NRLM is the rechristened version of Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY). It is a Ministry of Rural Development programme. It aims to reduce poverty by enabling the poor household to access gainful self employment and skilled wage employment opportunity resulting in a sustainable livelihood.

NRLM is based on three pillars

1. Enhancing and expanding the existing livelihood options of the poor

2. Building skills for the job market

3. Nurturing self employed and entrepreneurs

NRLM plans to give special focus on the poorest households who are currently dependent on the MGNREGA. The design of
NRLM is more likely to succeed because its implementation is in a mission mode which enables it shift from the present allocation based approach to demand based approach. This enables the states to formulate their own livelihood based on poverty reduction action plans. It also focuses on targets, outcomes, and time bound strategy. The monitoring would be done against the targets of the poverty outcomes. NRLM will have continuous capacity building, imparting of requisite skills and creating linkages with livelihood opportunities for the poor, including those emerging from the organised sector.

NRLM funds will be directly released to the state level agencies and DRDA based on the detailed district wise annual action plan.  It will involve the Self Help Group in the implementation which increases the likelihood of its success. National Skill Development Council will also coordinate in the skill development part in the implementation of NRLM. In order to ensure institutional arrangement for skill development for self employment and wage employment, dedicated training institute for rural BPL youth i.e Rural Self Employment Training Institutes (RSETIs) are being set up with the aim of having at least one such institution in each district in India. These RSETIs will be set up with the partnership of banks. This will help in achieving the objectives of NRLM.

(b) Highlight the structure, objectives and role of the Advertising Standard Council of India. In what way has the August 2006
government notification made it more effective?

Answer:

The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI), established in 1985, is committed to the cause of Self-Regulation in Advertising, ensuring the protection of the interests of consumers. The ASCI was formed with the support of all four sectors connected with Advertising, viz. Advertisers, Ad Agencies, Media (including Broadcasters and the Press) and others like PR Agencies, Market Research Companies etc. Its main objective is to promote responsible advertising; thus enhancing the public's confidence in Advertising. ASCI thus aims to achieve its own overarching goal i.e., to maintain and enhance the public's confidence in advertising.

The Board of Governors (16 members) ensures equitable representation of Advertisers, Agencies, Media and other Advertising Services, the individual member firms being leaders in their respective industries or services. The Consumer Complaints Council (CCC) (21 members) has 12 Non-Advertising professionals representing civil society, who are eminent and recognised opinion leaders in their respective disciplines such as Medical, Legal, Industrial Design, Engineering, Chemical Technology, Human Resources and Consumer Interest Groups; 9 are advertising practitioners from our member firms.

ASCI is represented in all committees working on advertising content in every Ministry of the Government of India. ASCI’s Code for Self-Regulation in Advertising is now part of ad code under Cable TV Act’s Rules. Violation of ASCI’s Code is now treated as a violation of the government’s rules. ASCI’s membership of The European Advertising Standards Alliance (EASA) ensures that it gets valuable advice, learning and even influence at the international level.
The Consumer Complaints Council is ASCI's heart and soul. It is the dedicated work put in by this group of highly respected people that has given tremendous impetus to the work of ASCI and the movement of self-regulation in the advertising.

In August 2006, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting issued a notification deeming it necessary for all TV commercials in India to abide by the ASCI code. This effort of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting has made the advertising self-regulatory movement in India stronger and more effective.


4. Comment on any five of the following in about 150 words each.    12x5=60

(a) Salient recommendations of the RBI-appointed Damodaran committee on customer service in Banks.

Answer:

The Damodaran Committee on bank customer services has recommended active involvement of the boards of banks to guarantee customer satisfaction. The committee held that customer service and grievance redress should be included as a mandatory parameter in the performance appraisal report of all employees.

The committee has suggested that an agenda on the level of implementation of the Bank's Code of Commitments to Customers and an overview on the grievance redress mechanism in the bank should be placed before the bank every quarter before the Customer Service Committee.

The committee suggets that every board should ensure they have comprehensive policies for customer acceptance, care and severance. The banks should show sensitivity for small customers by ensuring that the pricing (bank charges) does not act as a deterrent for the small person to do banking transactions.

Emphasising on 'customer centricity', the committee recommended that bank boards should evolve human resources policies which should recruit for attitude and train for skills.

(b) Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS).

Answer:

It is a scheme by the Central Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Its funding pattern is up to 90 percent; it is funded by the Central Ministry. The Grant in Aid is released on the basis of recommendations received from the State Government, UTs through State Multi-Disciplinary grant-in-aid committee concerned or any other agency designated by the Ministry. Beneficiary could be an individual, a family, a community, women and Children.

The voluntary organisations are assisted in running rehabilitation centres for leprosy cured persons and also for manpower
development in the field of mental retardation and cerebral palsy. They are also assisted in establishment and development of special schools for major disability areas, viz. Orthopaedic, speech, hearing, visual and mental disability. The NGOs are extended assistance for setting up projects of vocational training to facilitate the disabled persons to be as independent as possible by acquiring basic skills. The Ministry, under the Scheme supports both recurring and non-recurring expenditure of projects by NGOs up to 90 percent.

(c) Evolution of ‘Green Benches’ in our higher judiciary.

Answer:

The Supreme Court of India interpreted Article 21 which guarantees the fundamental right to life and personal liberty, to include the right to a wholesome environment and held that a litigant may assert his or her right to a healthy environment against the State by a writ petition to the Supreme Court or a High Court. Public interest litigation has been used by the higher judiciary to ensure environment protection and safeguard public interest.

Till 1980, not much contribution was made by the courts in preserving the environment. One of the earliest cases which came to the Supreme Court of India was Municipal Council, Ratlam, vs Vardhichand AIR 1980 SC 1622. Thereafter, series of cases were filed before the Supreme Court and there was a dynamic change in the whole approach of the courts in matters concerning environment.
India has now become the third country in the world to start a National Green Tribunal (NGT) which is a judicial body exclusively meant to judge environmental cases. The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same. The predecessor to the NGT, the erstwhile National Environment Appellate Authority has been superseded by the NGT.

(d) Distinction between ‘Department Related Parliament Standing committees’ and ‘Parliamentary Forum’.

Answer:

Departmental Standing Committees were created in 1993 to exercise control over the executive; particularly financial control. There are now 2 such committees having 31 members each; 21 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. Members from the Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, while members from the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the Rajya Sabha Chairman. A minister cannot be nominated as a member of the committee. These committees consider the demand for grants of the concerned ministry. They submit the reports based on which the discussion on budget takes place.

Parliamentary Forums on the other hand are ad hoc in nature and are constituted for specific issues to make the Members of the Parliament aware of the seriousness of the particular situation and to enable them to adopt a result-oriented approach towards these issues. The Parliamentary fora do not interfere in or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the concerned Departmentally Related Standing Committees or the Ministry/Department concerned. Members of these fora are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, as the case may be.

(e) Benefits and potential drawbacks of ‘cash transfers’ to Below Poverty Line Households.

Answer:

Cash transfer has come into discussion due to the leakages in several government schemes like the Public Distribution System. It has been successful in Latin American countries. Cash transfer has some benefits in terms of better targeting of public subsidy, reducing diversion, preventing corruption, and eliminating wastages in transportation and storage of goods like food grains. It also gives flexibility to the citizens in terms of buying the public goods and services. Cash transfer is also suitable for migrating population that moves in search of work.

Cash transfer on the other hand can only succeed if an appropriate IT infrastructure exits, through which cash can be transferred directly to the account of the beneficiary which becomes a challenge in the poor financial inclusion. Cash can be more prone to diversion if proper safeguards are not taken. Moreover cash transfer can work if the public delivery system is in place for e.g. how giving cash for health services will make any difference if there are no hospitals, medicines and doctors in the villages. Factoring inflation into cash transfer is always been a challenge.

(f) New initiatives during the 11th Five Year Plan in the National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB).

Answer:

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) endorsed and approved a budget of INR 12,500 million for the XI five-year (2007-12) plan period. The enhanced funding and financial allocation to the tune of nearly two-thirds of the previous plan period is indicative of the high political commitment accorded to blindness control activities in the India. With the federal nature of the Indian Constitution, the States are largely independent in matters relating to health delivery. The Central Government’s responsibility consists mainly of policy making, planning, funding, guiding, assisting, evaluating and coordinating the work of state health ministries so that health services cover every part of the country and no state lags behind for want of these services. The NPCB is striving to enhance the capacity of health institutions, health personnel and the community at all levels to address issues under the programme. In the approved XI five-year plan period, schemes with existing/enhanced financial allocation are being implemented along with new initiatives to reduce blindness.

5. Examine any three of the following in about 150 words each.        12x3=36

(a) The impact of climate change on water resources in India.

Answer:

The impact of climate change on water resources in India is evident through erratic monsoon, more frequent floods and droughts, stronger cyclones and rivers changing their course frequently. The severity is also due to the prevailing more than 7000km of coastline.

The changed rainfall pattern has adversely affected ground water recharge, wetlands both coastal and terrestrial.  Climate change has resulted in melting of Himalayan glaciers. It has the potential of making the Himalayan Rivers swell first and then turning them into seasonal rivers, threatening the source of freshwater. It can also lead to salt water intrusion and threatening aquaculture and coastal agriculture. 

The impact has been severe also because, India is still an agricultural country with its large population being dependant on weather related livelihood through agriculture, forestry, pisciculture etc.

(b) Measures taken by the Indian government to combat piracy in the Indian Ocean.

Answer:
Indian government has used INS Talwar to foil several bids by pirates near the Gulf of Aden. Indian government is coordinating the anti piracy measures at the international level with China, European countries and with the Gulf countries.
Indian government has placed surveillance radars in countries like Maldives and Srilanka to secure the sea lanes in the Indian Ocean. It has signed agreements with Madagascar, Seychelles and Mauritius for anti piracy measures. Government has also taken measures in strengthening the coastal security by equipping and reforming the coast guards. However, incidents like unmanned vessel drifting in the ocean and reaching the coast of Mumbai have highlighted the holes in our coastal security which needs to be plugged.

Supreme Court has recently asked the Central Government to formulate separate piracy law for trying the pirates and to take care of the compensation to the victim’s family. Currently piracy is being dealt under the provisions of Indian Penal Code.
 
(c) The significance of counter-urbanisation in the improvement of metropolitan cities in India.

Answer:

Counter-urbanisation is a demographic and social process where people move from large urban areas or into rural areas, thereby leapfrogging the rural-urban fringe. It might mean daily commuting, but could also require lifestyle changes and the increased use of ICT (home working or teleworking). It is the process of migration of people from major urban areas to smaller urban settlements and rural areas.  Counter-urbanisation affects the layout of rural settlements. Modern housing estates locate of the edge of small settlements. Industrial units are sited on main roads leading into the settlement.

Counter urbanisation will reduce pressure on the metropolitan cities and its basic amenities like drinking water supply, sewage facilities, continuous supply of electricity, education facilities, etc as people move out due to following

(i) Increase in car ownership enabling their movement, growth in information technology (E-mail, faxes and video conferencing) meaning more people can work from home

(ii) Urban areas are becoming increasing unpleasant place to live. This is the result of pollution, crime and traffic congestion.

(iii) More people tend to move when they retire.

(iv) New business parks being developed on the edge of cities (on Greenfield sites) meaning people no longer have to travel to the city centre. People now prefer to live on the outskirts of the city to be near where they work.

(d) Problems specific to the denotified and nomadic tribes in India.

Answer:
Post Independence the Criminal Tribe Act 1871 was replaced; and criminal tribe nomenclature was replaced with denotified tribe (DNTs) which is still considered derogatory. They have been discriminated; British government included some of the tribes like Gonds, Ho and Santhals under this categorisation as they had rebelled against the British Raj.

A major challenge in the intervention comes due dispersed nature of the tribes and having a nomadic culture surviving on shifting cultivation. This results in health and educational services a challenging task to deliver. It also makes the implementation of nutritional initiative like addressing iodine deficiency a challenging task. Preservation of their culture, script, practices also get hampered due to the same reason. Two different opinions arise with regard to the reservation for the DNTs to raise their social and economic conditions. One view supports providing reservation within existing group of SCs, STs and OBCs while the other view supports creating a new group for the reservation of DNTs.

6. In the context of the freedom struggle, write short notes (not exceeding 50 words each) on the following:    5x3=15

(a) 'Benoy-Badal-Dinesh' martyrdom.

Answer:

On 8 December 1930, Benoy along with Dinesh chandra Gupta and Badal Gupta, dressed in European costume, entered the Writers' Building and shot dead Simpson, the Inspector General of Prisons, who was infamous for the brutal oppression on the prisoners. This inspired further revolutionary activities in Bengal. After Independence Dalhousie square was named B.B.D Bagh-after Benoy-Badal-Dinesh. 

(b) Bharat Naujavan sabha

Answer:

Bharat Naujavan Sabha was an association of Indian youths which was established at a convention held in April 1928 at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. The aims of the Sabha were to create a youth wing of peasants and workers with a view to usher in revolution in the country and overthrow the British rule. Bhagat Singh was its secretary and principle organiser.

(c) 'Babbar Akali' movement

Answer:

The Babbar Akali movement, which emerged in the wake of the Akali Movement, and was an underground terrorist movement established in the Jalandhar Doab in 1921. Members fought pitched battles with police and committed acts of violence.

7. Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each:             5x6=30

(a) Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme in India.

Answer:

Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme by by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) means initiating intensive, annual monitoring of tigers at the tiger reserve level, across 41 protected areas in India. This programme is to estimate numbers of both tigers and their prey. This programme is planned to be commenced from November 2011.

(b) Why the Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of Consumer Price Index from this year?

Answer:

The Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of CPI with its base year of 2010 for rural, urban areas and for the nation as a whole. It will give a comprehensive picture of inflation at the national level for retail prices. Government also proposes to use it for giving dearness allowance for government employee in the seventh pay commission.

(c) Composition and functions of the National Executive Committee of the National Disaster Management Authority.

Answer:

The National Executive Committee (NEC) of the National Disaster Management Authority comprises the Union Home Secretary as the Chairperson, and the Secretaries to the GOI in the Ministries/Departments of Agriculture, Atomic Energy, Defence, Drinking Water Supply, Environment and Forests, Finance (Expenditure), Health, Power, Rural Development, Science and Technology, Space, Telecommunications, Urban Development, Water Resources and the Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff of the Chiefs of Staff Committee as members.

(d) The Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 and why it has been in news recently?

Answer:

Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 provides that the property of corrupt persons can be attached even when the probe is under way, if the authorised officer concludes that the acquisition of the property was the result of the offence committed by the accused. Bihar implemented it and some officials came under this Act. Its constitutional validity was questioned in Supreme Court which refused to stay this act.

(e) The Telecommunications Ministry’s proposed Spectrum Management Commission.

Answer:
Spectrum Management Commission is a new entity to manage and regulate spectrum allocation. The Commission will subsume Wireless Planning Coordination wing of the Department of Telecom and will get wider powers including dispute settlement, pricing and regulations related to spectrum. While the DoT will continue to be the licensor, all issues pertaining to spectrum allocation will be brought under Spectrum Management Commission.

(f) The Community-Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) approach to sanitation.

Answer:
CLTS is an innovative methodology for mobilising communities to completely eliminate open defecation (OD). Communities are facilitated to conduct their own appraisal and analysis of open defecation (OD) and take their own action to become ODF (open defecation free). CLTS focuses on the behavioural change needed to ensure real and sustainable improvements. It invests in community mobilisation instead of hardware, and shifting the focus from toilet construction for individual households to the creation of ’open defecation-free’ villages.

8. Attempt the following in not more than 50 words each.        5x4=20

(a) Distinguish either between the ‘Moatsu’ and ‘Yemshe’ festivals of Nagaland or the ‘Losar’ and ‘Khan’ festivals of Arunachal Pradesh.

Answer:

Moatsu Festival is celebrated in Nagaland by the Ao tribe. It is observed every year in the first week of May. During this Nagaland festival, a number of rituals are performed. After sowing the seeds, the Aos observe Moatsu Mong.

The Pochury Tribe celebrates their greatest festival, Yemshe in the month of October every year. During the Yemshe festival, the arrival of the new harvest is celebrated with full fun & fair. The Losar Festival also called as the New Year Festival and it is the most important festival celebrated in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh. Losar is celebrated by the Monpas that forms the major portion of population in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh.
In the Khan festival of Arunachal Pradesh, the social and cultural beliefs of the local tribes can be witnessed. Regardless the different casts and creed, the local tribes unite in the Khan celebration.

(b) Write a sentence each of any five of the following traditional theater forms:

(i) Bhand Pather: It is the traditional theatre form of Kashmir, which is a unique combination of dance, music and acting. Satire, wit and parody are preferred for inducing laughter.

(ii) Swang:
It is a popular folk dance-drama or folk theatre form in Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. Swang incorporates suitable theatrics and mimicry (or nakal) accompanied by song and dialogue. Swang theatre is
traditionally restricted to men, who also play the female roles.

(iii) Maach:
It is a traditional Hindi theatre form of Madhya Pradesh. It shares the secular nature and characteristics of other north Indian genres like Nautanki and Khyal. Based on religious, historical, romantic, or social themes, it was invented and developed by prominent artists like Guru Gopalji, Guru Balmukund, Kaluram Ustad, and Radhakrishan Ustad.

(iv) Bhaona:
It is a unique festival of Vaishnava theatrical performance in Assam. The performance is marked by a continuous shifting between the classical and the folk, the mundane and the spiritual, providing thousands of spectators a rare aesthetic experience.

(v) Mudiyettu:
It is ritualistic dance drama performed after the harvest of summer crops in Kerala. In 2010, Mudiyettu was included in the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage Lists.

(vi) Dashavatar:
Dashavatar is the most developed theatre form of the Konkan and Goa regions. The performers personify the ten incarnations of Lord Vishnu-the god of preservation and creativity.

(c) What are the major different styles of unglazed pottery making in India?

Answer:

There are three different styles in unglazed pottery making in India. They are - the paper-thin, scrafito and highly polished. Black pottery is another famous form of unglazed pottery in Indian villages and it resembles the Harappan pottery style. In the paper thin pottery, the biscuit coloured pottery is decorated with incised patterns.

(d) List the classical dance forms of India as per the Sangeet Natak Akademy.

Answer:
Sangeet Natak Akademi currently confers classical status on nine Indian dance styles which are Bharatnatyam, Kathak, Gaudiya Nritya, Kathakali, Mohiniyattam, Oddisi, kuchipudi, Sattriya, and Manipuri.

9. Comment on following in not more than 50 words each:        5x5=25

(a) Nisarga-Runa technology of BARC.

Answer:

The Nisarga-Runa technology developed at BARC converts biodegradable solid waste into useful manure and methane. It can be deployed for the dual objectives of waste management as well as for livelihood creation among the urban underprivileged. The 'Nisargruna' technology adopts biphasic reactor system wherein the first reactor is operated under aerobic and thermophilic conditions. As a result of the first feature, the universal problem of odour from waste processing biogas plants is eliminated and the second feature leads to a faster process. Unlike conventional single phase digesters, which take 30-40 days, a 'Nisargruna' plant can digest organic solid waste between 18-22 days.

(b) The first aid that you can safely administer to a person standing next to you at the bus stop who suddenly faints.

Answer:

I would first take the person away from the crowd to an open and safe area. Then I would sprinkle some water on his/her face to bring him/her back to consciousness. If the person does not gain consciousness then mouth to mouth respiration and administering CPR can be considered as the next step. His/her family members or friends should be immediately informed about his/her ill health by a phone call from the contact details from the mobile phone or the purse of the person and can gather information on the person’s medical condition and then accordingly he/she can be taken for medical supervision.

(c) The Kaveri K-10 aero-engine.

Answer:

Kaveri K-10 engine is being developed to be used in the Light Combat Aircraft, Tejas. It is being developed in collaboration of French firm, Snecma.  It will have less weight and more reheat thrust to meet the requirements of the Indian Army.

(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology

Answer:
Molecular breast imaging (MBI) is three times more effective than mammograms, and far less costly than other nuclear-medicine imaging. Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) uses a dedicated dual-head gamma camera and 99mTc-sestamibi in women having dense breast patterns and additional risk factors for breast cancer.

(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)

Answer:

UPSC has taken the initiative for getting the forms of several examinations like civil services filled online. It also displays the status of the application form for every candidate on its website. UPSC publishes the syllabus and tentative schedules of various UPSC conducted examinations on its website helping students to plan in advance. UPSC also publishes the various court orders and notifications on the web site and information regarding the RTI petitions on its website.

10. Who are the following and why have they been in the news recently? (each answer should not exceed 20 words): 2x7=14

(a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh

Answer:

Lieutenant Navdeep Singh laid down his life fighting terrorists during an anti-infiltration operation along LOC in Gurez Sector of north Kashmir.

(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar

Answer:

He was an exponent of Dagar vani Dhrupad, which is one of the most pristine and richest forms of Indian classical music. He represented the 19th generation of Dagar Tradition.

(c) Lobsang Sangay
Answer:

He is the Tibetan Prime Minister in exile. He is a Harvard graduate and a political successor of Dalai Lama.

(d) P.R. Sreejesh

Answer:

P.R. Sreejesh is Hockey Goalkeeper in the Indian Hockey team. He is from Kerela.

(e) Nileema Mishra

Answer:

She is one of the Magsaysay Award winners for 2011.. She is a lender to the poorest in Maharashtra. She was recognised for her purpose-driven zeal to work tirelessly with villagers in Maharashtra.

(f) V.Tejeswini Bai

Answer:

Tejeswini is a Kabbadi player from Karnataka who has represented India from 2005 to 2010 and captained Indian team for four years.

(g) Aishwarya Narkar

Answer:

Aishwarya Narkar is a Marathi actress who also works in the Hindi TV serials. She has received National Film Award from the
President of India.

Assam Public Service Commission’s Combined Competitive (Pre) Exam 2009

GENERAL STUDIES

 (EXAM HELD ON: 11.12.2011)

1. Habeas corpus writ is associated with
(A) anticipatory bail
(B) quashing the order of Un administrative authority
(C) an order of freedom of speech
(D) production of person before the court
Ans: (D)
2. Drip irrigation is mostly practised in India especially for
(A) tea and coffee
(B) rice
(C) wheat
(D) vegetables (Rabi crops)
Ans: (D)
3. Grey Revolution is associated with
(A) production of cement
(B) commercial production of eggs
(C) productions of sweets
(D) steel production
Ans: (A)
4. The mass of an iron piece when gets rusted
(A) may increase or decrease depending upon temperature
(B) decreases
(C) increases
(D) remain same
Ans: (B)
5. The purest form of gold is
(A) 18 carat
(B) 22 carat
(C) 24 carat
(D) 28 carat
Ans: (C)
6. The National Flood Control Programme (NFCP) for flood control in India was launched in the year
(A) 1951
(B) 1954
(C) 1947
(D) 1960
Ans: (B)
7. The Integrated Wasteland Development Programme (IWDP) is sponsored by
(A) NABARD
(B) Government of India
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) UNO
Ans: (B)
8. In which Indian State is the hill station Kodaikanal situated?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Rajasthan
Ans: (C)
9. Which is the longest river in Asia?
(A) River Surama
(B) River Ob
(C) River Ganga
(D) River Brahmaputra
Ans: (B)
10. What is the percentage of oxygen in the earth's crust?
(A) 92
(B) 50
(C) 61
(D) 45
Ans: (D)
11. Name the country which is known as the 'Land of Morning Calm'.
(A) Japan
(B) Korea
(C) Indonesia
(D) Canada
Ans: (B)
12. What is the precise time taken by the earth for one rotation?
(A) 24 hr
(B) 24 hr 30 min
(C) 23 hr 56 min 4.09 sec
(D) 24 hr 5 min 5.02 sec
Ans: (C)
13. The total area of Assam is
(A) 80645 km2
(B) 78438 km2
(C) 79012 km2
(D) 77901 km2
Ans: (B)
14. The largest continent in the world is
(A) Europe
(B) North America
(C) Asia
(D) Africa
Ans: (C)
15. Assam State enjoys
(A) tropical climate
(B) hot climate
(C) warm climate
(D) cold climate
Ans: (A)
16. Terai zone is situated at Assam's
(A) North zone
(B) East zone
(C) South zone
(D) West zone
Ans: (B)
17. The National Park of Assam where the rare white-winged duck (Deohanh) is found is
(A) Nameri
(B) Dibru Saikhowa
(C) Manas
(D) Orang
Ans: (A)
18. What is the name of the new island emrging out of the Bay of Bengal?
(A) Sonali
(B) Dhan Khuli
(C) Purbasa
(D) Uttara
Ans: (C)
19. Which of the following is related to international trade?
(A) EXIM
(B) IIP
(C) FPO
(D) TQM
Ans: (A)
20. Of the total geographical area of Assam the total area under forest is
(A) 33 p.c
(B) 22 p.c
(C) 28 p.c
(D) 19 p.c
Ans: (B)
21. World's largest producer of gold is
(A) Saudi Arabia
(B) USA
(C) South Africa
(D) Canada
Ans:
22. When was Mizoram converted into a Union Territory?
(A) 1969
(B) 1972
(C) 1949
(D) 1951
Ans: (B)
23. Which is the world's longest railway line?
(A) Trans-Siberian line
(B) Texas Railway line
(C) Trans-Austin line
(D) Trans-American line
Ans: (A)
24. For a healthy adult Indian, the Body Mass Index (BMI) Should be in the range of
(A) 11.51 - 18
(B) 18.5 - 24.9
(C) 25-30
(D) None of the Above
Ans: (B)
25. Black hole is an object to be found
(A) at the bottom of oceans
(B) in the sky
(C) inside a current –carrying conductor
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
26. Minimum velocity required by a body to escape earth’s gravitation (escape velocity) is
(A) 9.5 km/s
(B) 11.2 km/s
(C) 13 km/s
(D) 24.25 km/s
Ans: (B)
27. Which one of the following is not an operating system of computers?
(A) Sun 05
(B) BSD
(C) GNEXT/Linux
(D) Windows NT
Ans: (A)
28. Which is the largest moon in the solar system?
(A) Ganymede
(B) Titan
(C) Lo
(D) Callisto
Ans: (A)
29. Pacemaker is implanted in heart when one of the following is defective
(A) SA node
(B) AV node
(C) Purkinje fibre
(D) Bundle of His
Ans: (A)
30. When a person is undergoing prolonged fasting, his/her urine will contain abnormal quantity of
(A) fat
(B) ketone
(C) amino acid
(D) glucose
Ans: (B)
31. Science of improving human race is
(A) eugenics
(B) epigenesis
(C) epistasis
(D) euthenics
Ans: (A)
32. A photon will have less energy, if its
(A) amplitude is higher
(B) frequency is higher
(C) wavelength is longer
(D) wavelength is shorter
Ans: (C)
33. Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) is mainly a mixture of
(A) propane and butane
(B) butane and isobutane
(C) propane and isobutane
(D) propane and tetralin
Ans: (A)
34. One of the elements of direct democracy is
(A) refrendum
(B) equality
(C) free and fair election
(D) universal adult franchise
Ans: (A)
35. 'Purna Swaraj' resolution of the Congress was adopted on
(A) 26th January, 1930
(B) 26th January, 1931
(C) 26th January, 1929
(D) 26th January, 1932
Ans: (A)
36. Article 80 of the Indian Constitution deals with the formation of the
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Legislative Council
(D) District Council
Ans: (A)
37. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India on the basis of the recommendation of
(A) S.V. Singh Committee
(B) Swaran Singh Committee
(C) C. Hanumantha Rao Committee
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
38. In the formal sense, Panchayati Raj was established in Assam in the year
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans:
39. The Planning Commission in India was established by
(A) an act of the Parliament
(B) the Constitution of India
(C) resolution of the Central Government
(D) presidential order
Ans: (C)
40. Which of the following methods is not provided by the Citizenship Act, 1955 to acquire Indian citizenship?
(A) By birth
(B) By descent
(C) By registration
(D) By exercising right to vote
Ans: (D)
41. Which of the following types of budgeting is followed in India?
(A) Plural budgeting
(B) Cash budgeting
(C) performance budgeting
(D) Surplus budgeting
Ans: (C)
42. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is related to the independence of the Union Public Service Commission?
(A) Article 323
(B) Article 324
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 326
Ans: (A)
43. Which of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India relates to languages?
(A) 7th Schedule
(B) 8th Schedule
(C) 9th Schedule
(D) 10th Schedule
Ans: (B)
44. The French philosopher Rousseau belonged to the
(A) eighteenth century
(B) sixteenth century
(C) fifteenth century
(D) seventeenth century
Ans: (A)
45. Which of the following can initiate the process of impeachment of the President of India?
(A) Any House of the Parliament
(B) The Lok Sabha alone
(C) The Rajya Sabha alone
(D) The Supreme Court of India
Ans: (A)
46. Which of the following is not a part of the financial management?
(A) Preparation of the budget
(B) Approval of the budget by the Cabinet
(C) Execution and rendering of accounts
(D) Audit and accounts of public expenditure
Ans: (C)
47. Under the Assam Panchayat Act, 1994, the quorum for the meeting of the Gram panchayat is
(A) one-half of the total number of members
(B) one-half of the total number of members present
(C) one-third of the total number of members
(D) one-third of the total number of members present
Ans: (C)
48. Who initiated the Home Rule Movement in India?
(A) Chittaranjan Das
(B) Lajpat Rai
(C) Annie Besant
(D) Maulana Azad
Ans: (C)
49. The Indus Valley Cilvilization belongs to the
(A) Palaeolithic Age
(B) Mesolithic Age
(C) Neolithic Age
(D) Chalcolithic Age
Ans: (D)
50. Who among the following was the first to visit India?
(A) Huen Tsang
(B) I-Tsing
(C) Fa-Hien
(D) Megasthenes
Ans: (D)
51. Ahalya Bai was distinguished
(A) Maratha leader
(B) Rajput leader
(C) Sikh leader
(D) Mughal leader
Ans: (A)
52. During which period did the East India Company begin to build up its territorial power in India?
(A) Beginning of the 18th century
(B) Last quarter of the 17th century
(C) Middle of the 18th century
(D) First quarter of the 19th century
Ans: (C)
53. What is the date of the Third Battle of Panipat?
(A) AD 1551
(B) AD 1661
(C) AD 1761
(D) AD 1861
Ans: (C)
54. Which Act transferred power from the Company to the Crown in India?
(A) Act of 1861
(B) Act of 1892
(C) Act of 1858
(D) Act of 1853
Ans: (C)
55. The first railway line in India was laid in
(A) 1852
(B) 1853
(C) 1857
(D) 1885
Ans: (B)
56. The slogan 'Inquilab Zindabad' was given by
(A) Chandrashekhar Azad
(B) Muhammad Iqbal
(C) Bhagat Singh
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: (B)
57. Which of the following events can be ascribed to the year 1919?
(A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(B) Partition of Bengal
(C) Permanent Settlement of Bengal
(D) Subsidiary Alliance
Ans: (A)
58. In 1826, the Treaty of Yandaboo was sigried by which the British practically occupied Assam from the Burmese, In which year was Burma annexed by the British?
(A) 1837
(B) 1826
(C) 1864
(D) 1891
Ans:
59. Who wrote 'Vande Matram'?
(A) Muhammad Iqbal
(B) Sarat Chandra Chatterjee
(C) Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
(D) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Ans: (C)
60. The earliest historical dynasty of Assam was that of the
(A) Palas
(B) Varmans
(C) Narakas
(D) Salastambhas
Ans: (B)
61. The first tea company established in Assam was
(A) Jorhat Tea Company
(B) Assam Company
(C) Assam-Bengal Tea Company
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
62. The Indian National Congress was founded during the viceroyalty of
(A) Lord Canning
(B) Lord Dufferin
(C) Lord Amherst
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans: (B)
63. 'Do or Die' was the slogan during
(A) the Swadeshi Movement
(B) the Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) the Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) the Quit India Movement
Ans: (D)
64. Which of the following Land Settlement Systems was followed in Assam?
(A) Ryotwari
(B) Zamindari
(C) Mahalwari
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
65. A. O. Hume was a
(A) scientist
(B) social worker
(C) civil servant
(D) military commander
Ans: (C)

66. The capital of British India was shifted to Delhi in the year
(A) 1908
(B) 1911
(C) 1937
(D) 1947
Ans: (B)
67. Indian National Army was headed by
(A) Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
(B) General Cariappa
(C) A. G. Khan
(D) M. N. Roy
Ans: (A)
68. The Swadeshi Movement started during
(A) Anti Bengal Partition Movement
(B) Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
69. If the deepest parts of the ocean are about 10 kilometers and the radius of the earth is about 6400 kilometers, then the depth of the ocean would represent what percentage of the earth's radius?
(A) Less than 1%
(B) About 5%
(C) About 10%
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
70. How are latitude and Iongitilde lines drawn on a globe of the earth?
(A) Latitude lines are parallel and longitude lines meet at the equator
(B) Longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the equator                   
(C) Latitude lines arc parallel and longitude linea meet at the poles
(D) longitude lines are parallel and latitude lines meet at the poles
Ans: (C)
71. Which radioactive isotope is most useful for nuclear power generation?
(A) Uranium-238
(B) Uranium-235                           
(C) Carbon-14
(D) Rubidium-87
Ans: (A)
72. The third most abundant gas in the atmosphere is
(A) argon
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) helium
(D) hydrogen
Ans: (A)
73. Where is the headquarters of WTO?
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) Rome
(D) Paris
Ans: (B)
74. Who authored the book, India from Midnight to Millennium?
(A) Khushwant Singh
(B) Mira Nair
(C) Sashi Tharoor
(D) Arun Jaitley
Ans: (C)
75. The first regular census in India was carried out in the year
(A) 1861
(B) 1881
(C) 1901
(D) 1911
Ans: (B)
76. Who was the first Secretary-General of UNO?
(A) Dag Harnrnarakjcld
(B) U Thant
(C) Trygve Lie
(D) Javier Perez de Cuellar
Ans: (C)
77. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research is Located at
(A) Trombay
(B) Kalpakkam
(C) Tarapore
(D) Jaduguda
Ans: (B)
78. The Bhakra Dam is located in
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (A)
79. Which planet takes more time to complete one rotation on its axis than to complete one revolution around the sun?
(A) Mercury
(B) Venus
(C) Mars
(D) Jupiter
Ans:
80. Who chairs the Planning Commission in India?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Vice-President of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
81. Sanjukta Panigrahi was the popular exponent of which Indian clasaical dance form?
(A) Kathak
(B) Kathllkali
(C) Bharat Natyam
(D) Odissi
Ans: (D)
82. Swine flu is caused by
(A) bacteria
(B) virus
(C) protozoa
(D) fungi
Ans: (B)
83. How many members are there in the Rajya Sabha from Assam?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 6
Ans: (A)
84. The States which have common boundaries with Bangladesh are
(A) Bihar, West Bengal, Tripura, Assam
(B) Manipur, Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya, West Bengal
(C) West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mijoram
(D) Manlpur, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
Ans: (C)
85. The average gradient of the Brahamaputra within Assam is
(A) 18 cm/km
(B) 20 cm/km
(C) 13 cm/km
(D) 10 cm/km

Ans:
86. Find the odd pair out,
(A) Dheer beel : Dhubri district
(B) Khamrenga beel : kamrup (M)
(C) Tamranga beel : Bongaigaon district
(D) Mer beel : Jorhat district

Ans:
87. Clouded leopard and capped langur are important animals of
(A) Manas National Park
(B) Nameri Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) Boronodi Wildlife Sanctuary

Ans:
88. The slogan of the Commonwealth Games-2010 held in New Delhi was
(A) Get out and play
(B) Come here and play
(C) Come out and play
(D) Jiyo Utho Badho
Ans: (C)
89. The per capita income of Assam been calculated to be as
(A) Rs. 14,500
(B) Rs. 11,600
(C) Rs. 10,200
(D) Rs. 8,300

Ans:
90. The National Highway 1 connects
(A) New Delhi and Mumbai
(B) Kolkata and Amritsar
(C) Jammu and New Delhi
(D) Srinagar and Thiruvananthapuram

Ans:
91. Which one of the following States is not touched by Tropic of Cancer?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Mizoram
(C) Bihar
(D) Chhattisgarh
Ans: (D)
92. The famous fort sonar killa is located at
(A) Jaipur
(B) Jaisalmer
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Bikaner
Ans: (B)
93. Which one of the following is not a tributary to the Indus?
(A) Beas
(B) Chambal
(C) Chenab
(D) Ravi
Ans: (B)
94. Sardar Sarobar Dam is constructed on river
(A) Sutlej
(B) Saraswati
(C) Narmada
(D) Godavari
Ans: (C)
95. Bermuda Triangle is located in
(A) Caribbean Sea
(B) Gulf of Mexico
(C) Gulf of Guinea
(D) Persian Gulf
Ans: (A)
96. Waterloo is located in
(A) Belgium
(B) France
(C) England
(D) Switzerland
Ans: (A)
97. The vast grassland of Australia is known as
(A) Prairie
(B) Steppe
(C) Veld
(D) Down
Ans: (D)
98. Which Strait divides Europe from Africa?
(A) Bosporus
(B) Bering
(C) Dover
(D) Gibraltar
Ans: (D)
99. Who Was awarded the Man of the Series in Cricket World Cup, 2011?
(A) M. S. Dhoni
(B) Tilakratne Dilshan
(C) Yuvraj Singh
(D) Kurnara Sangakara
Ans: (C)
100. First Indian to win the gold medal in men's singles tennis at the Asian Games was
(A) Leander Paes
(B) Rohan Bopanna
(C) Somdev Dev varman
(D) Mahesh Bhupathi
Ans: (C)